TOEIC -- Test of English for International Communication

Section 0: Background Questionnaire 30 minutes
Section 1: Listening Comprehension 45 minutes
PART I: PHOTOGRAPHS 20
PART II: QUESTION-RESPONSE 30
PART III: SHORT CONVERSATIONS 30
PART IV: SHORT TALKS 20

Section 2: Reading 75 minutes
PART V: INCOMPLETE SENTENCES 40
PART VI: ERROR RECOGNITION 40
PART VII: READING COMPREHENSION 40

Section 0: Background Questionnaire

The TOEIC Background Questionnaire asks about your educational, work, English language, and TOEIC test-taking experience. Your responses to the Questionnaire enable your organization to learn more about the backgrounds of people who take the test and some of the factors that affect TOEIC scores and improvement in English. Your responses to the Questionnaire are kept confidential and do not in any way affect your TOEIC scores. We encourage you to answer all of the questions.

TOEIC -- Test of English for International Communication
GENERAL DIRECTIONS
This is a test of your ability to use the English language. The total time for the test is approximately two hours. It is divided into seven parts. Each part of the test begins with a set of specific directions. Be sure you understand what you are to do before you begin work on a part.

You will find that some of the questions are harder than others, but you should try to answer each question to the best of your ability. Your score will be based on the number of questions you answer correctly.

Do not mark your answers in this test book. You must put all of your answers on the separate answer sheet that you have been given. When putting your answer to a question on your answer sheet, be sure to fill in the answer space corresponding to the letter of your choice. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the circle cannot be seen, as shown in the example on the following page.

EXAMPLE Mr. Jones _____ to his accountant yesterday.
(A) talk
(B) talking
(C) talked
(D) to talk
Sample Answer (A) (B) (C) (D)

The sentence should read, “Mr. Jones talked to his accountant yesterday.” Therefore, you should choose answer (C). Notice how this has been done in the example above.

Mark only one answer for each question. If you change your mind about an answer after you have marked it on your answer sheet, completely erase your old answer and then mark your new answer. You must mark the answer sheet carefully so that the test-scoring machine can accurately record your test score.

Section 1: Listening Comprehension
In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section, with special directions for each part.

PART I: PHOTOGRAPHS
Directions: For each question, you will see a picture in your test book and you will hear four short statements. The statements will be spoken just one time. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speaker says.

When you hear the four statements, look at the picture in your test book and choose the statement that best describes what you see in the picture. Then, on your answer sheet find the number of the question and mark your answer. Look at the sample on the next page.

EXAMPLE
Now listen to the four statements.
You will hear:
(A) They’re looking out of the window.
(B) They’re having a meeting.
(C) They’re eating in a restaurant.
(D) They’re moving the furniture.
Sample Answer (A) (B) (C) (D)
Statement (B), “They’re having a meeting,” best describes what you see in the picture. Therefore, you should choose answer (B).

PART II: QUESTION-RESPONSE
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear a question or statement spoken in English, followed by three responses, also spoken in English. The question or statement and the responses will be spoken just one time. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say. You are to choose the best response to each question or statement.

Example Now listen to a sample question.

You will hear: Good morning, John. How are you?
You will also hear:
(A) I am fine, thank you.
(B) I am in the living room.
(C) My name is John.
Sample Answer (A) (B) (C)
The best response to the question “How are you?” is choice (A), “I am fine, thank you.” Therefore, you should choose answer (A).

PART III: SHORT CONVERSATIONS
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear short conversations between two people. The conversations will not be printed in your test book. You will hear the conversations only once, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say.

In your test book, you will read a question about each conversation. The question will be followed by four answers. You are to choose the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.

SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Question 1
You will hear:
1. (Man) We should think about finding another restaurant for lunch.
  (Woman) Why? The food and service here are great.
  (Man) Yes, but the prices are going up every week.

You will read: 1. Why is this man unhappy with the restaurant?
(A) It is too noisy.
(B) It is too expensive.
(C) It is too crowded
(D) It is too difficult to find.

PART IV: SHORT TALKS

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. Each will be spoken just one time. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand and remember what is said.

In your test book, you will read two or more questions about each short talk. The questions will be followed by four answers. You are to choose the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.

SAMPLE QUESTIONS
You will hear: Questions 1 and 2 refer to the following announcement.

Good afternoon and welcome aboard Nordair Flight 857 from Copenhagen to Bangkok, with intermediate stops in Dubai and Calcutta. We are preparing for departure in a few minutes. At this time your seat back should be returned to its full upright position and your seat belt should be fastened. Our anticipated total flying time to Dubai is six hours and twenty-five minutes. I hope you enjoy the flight.

You will hear: Now read question 1 in your test book and answer it.
You will read: 1. What is the final destination of the flight?
(A) Bangkok.
(B) Copenhagen.
(C) Dubai.
(D) Calcutta.

You will hear: Now read question 2 in your test book and answer it.
You will read: 2. What will happen in a few minutes?
(A) The flight will land in Dubai.
(B) The passengers will board the plane.
(C) The plane will take off.
(D) The gate number will be announced.

Section 2: Reading
In this section of the test you will have the chance to show how well you understand written English. There are three parts to this section, with special directions for each part.

PART V: INCOMPLETE SENTENCES

Directions: This part of the test has incomplete sentences. Four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), (D), are given beneath each sentence. You are to choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer.

EXAMPLE Because the equipment is very delicate, it must be handled with ____.
(A) caring
(B) careful
(C) care
(D) carefully
Sample Answer (A) (B) (C) (D)
The sentence should read, “Because the equipment is very delicate, it must be handled with care.” Therefore, you should choose answer (C).

PART VI: ERROR RECOGNITION

Directions: In this part of the test, each sentence has four words or phrases underlined. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), (D). You are to identify the one underlined word or phrase that should be corrected or rewritten. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer.

EXAMPLE All employee are required to wear their identification badges while at work.
                        A                         B                     C                   D
Sample Answer (A) (B) (C) (D)
The underlined word “employee” is not correct in this sentence. This sentence should read, “All employees are required to wear their identification badges while at work.” Therefore, you should choose answer (A).


PART VII: READING COMPREHENSION

Directions: The questions in this part of the test are based on a selection of reading materials, such as notices, letters, forms, newspaper and magazine articles, and advertisements. You are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer. Answer all questions following each reading selection on the basis of what is stated or implied in that selection.

EXAMPLE The Museum of Technology is a “hands-on” museum, designed for people to experience science at work. Visitors are encouraged to use, test, and handle the objects on display. Special demonstrations are scheduled for the first and second Wednesdays of each month at 13:30. Open Tuesday–Friday 12:00–16:30, Saturday 10:00–17:30, and Sunday 11:00–16:30.

When during the month can visitors see special demonstrations?
(A) Every weekend.
(B) The first two Wednesdays.
(C) One afternoon a week.
(D) Every other Wednesday.
Sample Answer (A) (B) (C) (D)

The reading selections says that the demonstrations are scheduled for the first and second
Wednesdays of the month. Therefore, you should choose answer (B).